Most of Frances Coppola’s articles
are quality stuff. But she went off the rails in this
article entitled “Full reserve banking: the largest bank bailout in history”.
First, for the benefit of readers not
acquainted with the basics of full reserve banking, I set them out on p.4 here.
Now for Frances’s criticisms.
She starts by listing three
problems with full reserve, the second of which is that it allegedly involves a
“Serious restriction on the nature and scope of bank lending”.
The answer to that is that there is
JUST ONE “restriction”, and that is that all loans must be funded by
shareholders (or people who are in effect shareholders) not by depositors. And
that would certainly reduce the TOTAL AMOUNT of lending (and thus the total
amount of debt).
In contrast, and as regards “nature
and scope” other than in the above “total amount” sense, there is no reason why
FR would influence the “nature and scope” of lending one iota. E.g. if widget
makers currently borrow more than other industries, then widget makers would
borrow more than other industries under FR.
As to the above mentioned reduction
in the total amount of debt that FR would bring about, there is widespread
concern (and not just by advocates of FR) about the steep rise in private debts
relative to GDP over the last decade or two. If that concern is justified, then
the “debt reducing” characteristic of FR would do no harm.
The free market.
But even if the above concern about
debts is not justified, the argument that less lending must necessarily be
undesirable still doesn’t stand inspection. And the reason is that banks under
the existing regime are subsidised (via lender of last resort, the TBTF subsidy
and taxpayer backing for deposits under £80,000). And subsidies do not make
sense unless there is some very good social reason for them.
Full reserve disposes of bank
subsidies, thus the assumption must be that while lending declines under full
reserve, lending declines to its optimum or “free market / non-subsidised”
level, thus GDP far from falling as a result of less lending, actually rises.
Three versions of FR.
Frances then briefly considers
three versions of FR: 1, the version set
out by two IMF authors, 2, Laurence Kotlikoff’s version, and 3, Positive
Money’s.
As regards the IMF version, I agree
with her that that is flawed, and for reasons I set out here.
Laurence Kotlikoff.
Kotlikoff is an economics professor
in Boston, and Frances claims that he advocates a system that “includes its own version of what in the
UK is known as the Tote”.
(That’s a horse betting system). She then goes on to criticise a system that
involves betting along the lines found in horse racing.
Well if banking a la Kotlikoff
really did involve something similar to betting on horses, then Frances would
doubtless have a point. However, Tote type betting or “paramutuel” betting is a
system that Kotlikoff advocates for INSURANCE COMPANIES, not for banks, as he
explains in section 4 of his book here.
Positive Money.
Frances’s first criticism of PM’s
version of FR is that the central bank committee that decided how much central
bank money to create (i.e. how much stimulus to effect) under PM’s system might
be politically biased or might be corruptible. As she puts it, “why on earth
does Positive Money think they would be incorruptible?”
Well the simple answer to that is
that EXACTLY THE SAME potential problem applies to EXISTING central bank
committees that decide on stimulus (i.e. interest rate adjustments, QE, etc).
In the case of the Bank of England, that’s the Monetary Policy Committee. But
the latter “potential problem” never seems to have turned into a REAL PROBLEM
to any great extent.
Of course it’s impossible for a
central bank to do anything which is TOTALLY non-political. Plus politicians are
constantly putting supposedly “independent” central banks under political
pressure. But certainly the Bank of England has not to my knowledge done
anything BLATANTLY political since WWII, like telling government how much to
spend in health, education, roads or whatever.
But to repeat, the real flaw in
Frances’s argument is that the latter problem would be NO MORE of a problem
under FR than under the existing system.
Economists’ inaccurate
forecasts.
Frances’s next criticism is that the
committee that would exist under PM’s version of FR would not be too good at
gauging the right amount of stimulus to implement if recent forecasts by
economists are any guide. As she puts it, “The Office of Budget Responsibility's
October
evaluation report admitted
that they got their growth forecasts wrong by a full 5 percentage points.”
Well the answer to that is the same
as the answer to the above “corruption” point: that is, the “inaccurate
forecast” problem would be no worse under PM’s system than under the existing
system.
FR involves a huge bank
“bailout”?
Frances next claim is that FR can
only be implemented via what she calls the “biggest bank bailout in history.”
Now the first and obvious flaw in
that argument is that the EXISTING BANKING SYSTEM had to be bailed out with
trillions of dollars of public money about three years ago. Thus supporters of
the existing system are hardly in a position to preach sermons on “bailouts” to
advocates of full reserve.
Next if FR involved a serious
amount of “bailout”, I suspect advocates of FR would have spotted that flaw. In
fact little or no “bailout” is involved, and for the following reasons.
Slow conversion to full
reserve.
One way to convert to full reserve
is to do it over a period of years: i.e. raise bank capital requirements by say
10% a year till after a decade, the percentage had reached 100%. In that
scenario, the sort of mutual funds advocated by Kotlikoff would gradually take
over lending from banks. Indeed, banks would be free to set up their own mutual
funds. And there’d be no need for the central bank to take over or bail out any
existing loans made by existing banks.
Quick conversion.
A second method of conversion is
what might be called the “overnight” conversion. And certainly Milton Freidman,
an advocate of full reserve, saw no problem there. As he put it, “There is no
technical problem in achieving a transition from our present system to 100%
reserves easily, fairly speedily and without any serious repercussions on
financial or economic markets.”
Moreover, Friedman was a diehard
free-marketeer, thus if FR involved any sort of “bailout” as claimed by
Frances, I’m 99% certain Friedman would not have touched the idea with a barge
pole.
So how would a “quick conversion”
work? It would be along the following lines.
Government announces that by a
particular point in time, all depositors must allocate their money as between
sums they want to be totally safe, and sums they are prepared to take a bit of
a risk with, with a view to earning interest (or more interest than is
obtainable on the latter totally safe money).
As regards the latter “risk” money,
all that is required is to change the description of the money involved. That
is, risk money is classified as “stake in a mutual fund” if we adopt
Kotlikoff’s version of full reserve. Or in the case of PM’s system, that money
becomes “money in investment accounts”. No bailout or anything that faintly
resembles a bailout there.
Safe money.
As to money that depositors want to
be totally safe, the central bank would need to create and effectively credit
those depositors with £X of central bank money for every £X of existing money
that those depositors had in commercial banks and which they wanted to be
totally safe. And that, as Frances correctly points out, would be a gift to or
“bailout” for commercial banks. But that’s not the end of the story.
What about the loans corresponding
to that money? Well that then becomes the property of the central bank. That is,
the central bank collects the repayment of capital and interest on those loans
till the loans expire. (Incidentally it could easily make sense for commercial
banks to collect those repayments of capital and interest ON BEHALF OF the
central bank. But that’s an administrative detail.)
So where’s the “bailout”? Basically
there isn't one!!!
There is however a small element of
potential bailout if the central bank were to carry any losses arising from
repayment of those loans. One possibility there is to simply accept those
possible bailout costs as part of the cost for the country as a whole of
converting to full reserve.
A second possibility is to get the
private sector to insure the central bank against loss. There are always
willing buyers of junk bonds and other dodgy assets.
But it’s unlikely that the loss
would amount to anything more than two or three percent of the total of such
loans in the case of bog standard British mortgages. And that accounts for the
large majority of lending by banks in the UK.
There is no easy answer to the
question as to how to treat potential losses arising from repayment (or rather
“non-repayment”) of loans. Government could play hardball with commercial banks
and depositors and offer them a miserable price for their loans. But that would
be seen as robbing depositors which would be politically unpopular.
At the other extreme, government
could be generous and pay full book value for those loans, and thus possibly
get involved in an element of “bailout”. But that would certainly not the “largest
bank bailout in history” as claimed by Frances.
Moreover, it’s near impossible to
get the price exactly right when organising a big transfer of assets between
public and private sectors. For example, with the benefit of hindsight it is
now clear that the UK’s Post Office was sold to the private sector recently for
way below a realistic price - £3.6bn too low according to this
source.
That article by Cappola article is indeed a ghastly muddle.However, she does correctly indicate that there would be transition problems, though not her alleged "bailout".
ReplyDeleteRegarding your two solutions to the transition problem ("slow" and "quick" conversion), I suspect that both would be have multiple and serious practical difficulties.
Fortunately here is a much simpler third method to transpose to Kotlikoff style Full Reserve banking - simply abolish the government's distortions of market forces in the savings/banking industry.
In particular, there should be zero taxpayer funded deposit insurance or bailouts of banks or other financial institutions.
Note that depositors already have options for investing in unit trusts/ mutual funds. And in the UK there is already the option of safe Full Reserve SAVINGS in the National Savings Bank.
The latter does not offer chequing, standing order or ATM facilities, but these could well be quickly offered by private sector Full Reserve banks if there were a demand.
Maybe banks could still be allowed to offer non-Full Reserve deposit accounts, but these would become much less popular (due to risks of bank failure or higher charges to cover private deposit insurance).
Of course, abolishing deposit insurance and bank bailouts would be unpopular with richer depositors, but it should be popular with taxpayers. Exactly the same political issues arise with all other proposals for Full Reserve banking.
A fourth solution to the transition problem is a tax on bank deposits which are NOT fully covered by safe assets.
ReplyDeleteFull Reserve bank deposits would be exempt from the tax.
Like the third method which I outlined above, a tax on risky deposits would work through market mechanisms within the banking industry. With a sufficiently high tax rate Full Reserve banking would become more attractive to banks and depositors than conventional banking. The latter would wither away.
The political and theoretical economic justification for the tax would be the external costs of deposit insurance, bailouts and economic instability.
This option would avoid the political problem of neglecting depositors in failed banks - they could still be insured or bailed out by the taxpayer. But the tax would mean that they would have to pay for these privileges through higher bank charges or lower interest.
And since the majority of depositors would switch to the relatively attractive Full Reserve banks, the scale of insurance payments and bailouts to conventional deposit holders would be greatly reduced if not completely eliminated.
KK, Strikes me that no one would know at the time when full reserve is implemented whether commercial bank assets eventually turned out to be equal to, less than or indeed more than book value. Thus no one would know whether your tax would need to be imposed, and if so, how large it would need to be.
DeleteOne possibility, and perhaps the fairest, would be to make existing bank shareholders carry the risk that a proportion of loans were not repaid. After all, they’re the ones carrying that risk ANYWAY: i.e. even in the event that full reserve is not implemented.
However I might think some more about this, and come up with more responses to your comments.